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Discussion: Call at 1st base

Posted Discussion
Aug. 27, 2010
bullet
Men's 55
130 posts
Call at 1st base
For any umps out there. Here is the question. A batter hits a slow roller in the infield, the 1st baseman is in position to catch the ball,but the fielder never throws the ball. The runner hit the "white" base. The Umps calls him out. Senior softball rules 8.3(1) say the runner will touch the outside base if a play is made on him.
Aug. 27, 2010
titanhd
Men's 50
324 posts
correct call.runner must touch outside base.
Aug. 28, 2010
Jawood
Men's 50
788 posts
We were told by an umpire once that you can touch the white bag at first if you are trying to avoid a collision.
Aug. 28, 2010
JohnBob
Men's 60
246 posts
The rule states runner must touch outside bag if there is a play on him, so in this case runner should be able to touch either base and be safe because fielder did not throw ball to 1st. that's the way I read the rule.
Aug. 28, 2010
titanhd
Men's 50
324 posts
John Bob.runner must touch outside bag.Not only that if runner beats the throw and steps on white base. Runner is out. If fielder touches the orange bag with ball in hand runner is safe.
Aug. 28, 2010
Duke
Men's 60
695 posts
Jawood and JohnBob,

Put your 2 replies together, and that is the correct answer as it is written in the rule book.

Bullet,

It sounds like the infielder should have thrown the ball, and he would have had himself an automatic out, since this is not an appeal play.

That is how I read it.

Andy Smith,
Double Edge,
60 Major
Aug. 29, 2010
doker
Men's 60
168 posts
If no play is made on the runner he can touch either base at first.....key is play being made on runner....rule is there to protect the first baseman from contact!!!!!!!!!!!!! If the pitcher or third baseman had thrown to first even if runner beat the throw ..he cud and shud be called out by the umpire for not touching the orange bag!!!!!!doker
Aug. 29, 2010
mad dog
Men's 60
3935 posts
duke,doker,yep ya both got it right,no throw = no play, thus runner should be able to touch either of the 2 bases.
Aug. 29, 2010
JohnBob
Men's 60
246 posts
doker, I agree.. That's what I was trying to say. lol
Aug. 31, 2010
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Men's 55
130 posts
I posted this message.More Info from our official,In his opionion ANY play in the infield on a ball is considered a play on the batter,even if no throw was made.
No where in the SSUSA rule does it devine a play on the batter,MAYBE the rules commitee needs to define this,so it is not someones opionion.
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