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Online now: 2 members: TABLE SETTER 11, Tntcnn25; 74 anonymousDiscussion: Tie Breaker Rules
| Posted | Discussion |
| Aug. 19, 2011 Corky Men's 55 451 posts | Tie Breaker Rules The way I've always played the international tiebreaker is to put the last batter of the previous inning on second and the batter get's in the box with a full count. Basically one pitch. I think in senior rules the runner at second has to advance one base before he can ask for a courtesy runner, BUT, can the runner at second be "substituted for" with a player that is not currently in the lineup? |
| Aug. 19, 2011 mad dog Men's 65 4191 posts | not sure but don't see why not,as long as it is a legal substitution. |
| Aug. 19, 2011 SSUSA Staff 3483 posts | Short answer: NO - Under SSUSA rules, the player on 2nd base MUST reach 3rd base prior to being replaced by a CR or a substitute. See SSUSA Rulebook §5.4(2) on page 28 of the current edition. The runner going to 2nd to start the ITB half-inning is the player who was "at bat" when the final out of the preceding inning was made, who may or may not have been the player who made the last out in the previous inning. The first batter of the ITB starts with a 0-0 count. |
| Aug. 19, 2011 mad dog Men's 65 4191 posts | mm so no legal substitution allowed for that player.what if they go to the field and he is replaced by someone before they come into bat,he still has to go out to 2b to run...... pinch hitter hits for a guy,the og guy reenters...??? |
| Aug. 19, 2011 Freddie Men's 55 108 posts | 1 more thing that SSUSA forgot to say, if the last batter is not able to run the previous batter before him will go to 2nd base with 1 out. |
| Aug. 19, 2011 SSUSA Staff 3483 posts | Freddie ... We didn't forget a thing ... That question wasn't asked! :) |
| Aug. 19, 2011 Freddie Men's 55 108 posts | just letting everyone know what if. Everyone have a great weekend |
| Aug. 20, 2011 Corky Men's 55 451 posts | Your right Mad Dog.........It would put the home team at an advantage, because they could sub (defensively) for the guy that would have run in the bottom (home half) of the inning. ???? |
| Aug. 20, 2011 Freddie Men's 55 108 posts | Gentelmen, the rule reads the last batter to bat in the last inning. It does not matter what you do in the next inning. If you use a sub you better be sure the last batter can re-enter. Otherwise you will be using the next batter in the order with 1 out. |
| Aug. 20, 2011 Gary19 Men's 50 2609 posts | Freddie, "not able to run"????? You are joking, right? The guy was just healthy enough to be the last batter and now, suddenly, he is not able to run? What a joke, if that is indeed allowed to occur. |
| Aug. 21, 2011 Omar Khayyam 1357 posts | Gary, lots of scenarios could cause this: batter tears his hamstring on way to first and makes third out; batter collides with first baseman making the turn and is tagged for final out while lying semi-conscious on base bath; batter tries to stretch single into double and is tagged for last out while sliding into second and spraining/breaking his ankle; etc. What would you do in these circumstances? Haul the batter out of the dugout and drop him on second? |
| Aug. 21, 2011 Gary19 Men's 50 2609 posts | Omar, I will concede those are all possibilities, though probably 1 in 500. More than likely a team would pull some BS reason to get a faster guy out there. But that is, sadly, softball in the 21st century. |
| Aug. 21, 2011 Nancy Allen Men's 55 1438 posts | Corky, you can always ask me when these things bother you. Also the 1 pitch/full count that you mentioned is only a Midwest Sports or their Indy copycats rule. I have never heard of that rule anywhere else. I will probably see you at ISP Tuesday. |
