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Discussion: 1 up HR rule

Posted Discussion
July 10
Gary Heifner

248 posts
In one major tourney this year, we entered the 7th-home runs tied. We scored 2 runs in the top via singles and the opponents scored 3 runs in the bottom via a 3 run home run. They were awared the victory on a 1 up HR.

In Champaign last weekend, we entered the 7th-homeruns tied. The opponents did not score in the top. When we came to bat, the ump said we could not win on a 1 up home run. Both were SSWC ring events. What's the rule on this???
July 10
SSUSA Staff

3505 posts
Gary - The rule is specific in the 2007 SSUSA Rule Book. See Section 13.3(6) on page 82. Although the paragraph contains a lot of words, here's the very concise summary: A team may go 1-up at ANY TIME. (Any time includes the last inning, irrespective of the current HR count of the teams involved)
July 11
Nancy Allen
Men's 55
1438 posts
Gary, the 1 up HR rule on home teams not being able to hit one up in the last inning is only an NSA rule. NSA changed the rule to that because it gave the home team an advantage (too much red tape for me).
Also the terminology "to win" is wrong to use. In any association, you can either go one up or not, to win is not really the criteria and adds more into it than there should be. I know that I was asked to help in a couple of cases this weekend on umpires wanting to enforce ASA, NSA, or USSSA rules that did not apply to SSWC. I think that Jerry did a good job, but there was no way that he could be at all seven diamonds. I wish that I had known that you had a problem though because I would have tried to get it straight for you. We had three things that the umpires tried to pull on us, but we got them settled the right way, but those are other stories.
July 11
Robo2

238 posts
All this would be a mute point if wwe just said unlimited HRs. It would speed up the game; have less batters going up the middle; allow spearation from the better teams into divisions where they belong and thereby eliminating the Regression To the Mean syndrome.

I don't know of any reaons why their exists a Home Run rule; especially with the number of runs allowed per inning and a run rule after 5 innings.

Can anyone explain it logically?
July 11
DesertGuy
Men's 60
224 posts
No Robo, I can't. But I'm sure with a smorgasboard of complaints you list, there ought to be a gem or two of wisdom in the 143 likely replies.
July 11
taits
Men's 65
4548 posts
Here is a rule that may make some scense. From NCSSA's "rule book" A northern Calif assn.
#34. One up home run rule: A team cannot have more than one home run (untouched ball hit over the fence) than its opponent. All subsequent
home runs (untouched balls hit over the fence) will be counted as a single and base runners may only advance one base if forced. Exception:
The home team, in the bottom of the last inning of the game, may not hit a home run (untouched ball hit over the fence) to go one up. All
homeruns hit over the fence are walk offs for the batter & base runner(s). (Runners don’t have to touch any bases.)

The different assn's have too many different ones.
This one works well.
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